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NCLEX-RN (National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses) is a standardized exam that is used to determine whether a nurse is qualified to practice as a registered nurse. It is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing and is required in all 50 states in the United States. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to test the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary for safe and effective nursing practice.
NCLEX-RN (National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses) is a standardized exam that is used to determine whether or not a candidate is qualified to become a registered nurse in the United States. NCLEX-RN exam is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) and is designed to test the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary for safe and effective nursing practice.
NCLEX-RN exam comprises of multiple-choice questions that are designed to test the individual's nursing knowledge, critical thinking, decision-making abilities, and problem-solving skills. The number of questions and the length of the exam depend on the individual's performance, with a minimum number of questions ranging from 75 to a maximum of 265. NCLEX-RN Exam's content is derived from the latest nursing practices, making it relevant to the current nursing profession.
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NCLEX National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) Sample Questions (Q721-Q726):
NEW QUESTION # 721
In working with a manipulative client, which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate?
- A. Redirecting the client
- B. Bargaining with the client as a strategy to control the behavior
- C. Providing a consistent set of guidelines and rules
- D. Assigning the client to different staff persons each day
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) This answer is incorrect. Bargaining is a manipulative act, which the nurse could expect from the client. (B) This answer is incorrect. Confrontation is an effective nursing strategy with manipulative behavior. Redirection is appropriate for the client who is out of touch with reality. (C) This answer is correct. Manipulative clients must abide by consistent rules. (D) This answer is incorrect. Manipulation is kept at a minimum if the same staff person is assigned to the client. Often the client will attempt to play staff persons against each other.
NEW QUESTION # 722
To prevent fungal infections of the mouth and throat, the nurse should teach clients on inhaled steroids to:
- A. Rinse the mouth before each use to eliminate colonization of bacteria
- B. Take antacids immediately before inhalation to neutralize mucous membranes and prevent infection
- C. Rinse the mouth and gargle with warm water after each use of the inhaler
- D. Rinse the plastic holder that aerosolizes the drug with hydrogen peroxide every other day
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) It is sufficient to rinse the plastic holders with warm water at least once per day. (B) It is important to rinse the mouth after each use to minimize the risk of fungal infections by reducing the droplets of the glucocorticoid left in the oral cavity. (C) Antacids act by neutralizing or reducing gastric acid, thus decreasing the pH of the stomach. "Neutralizing" the oral mucosa prior to inhalation of a steroid inhaler does not minimize the risk of fungal infections. (D) Rinsing prior to the use of the glucocorticoid will not eliminate the droplets left on the oral mucous membranes following the use of the inhaler.
NEW QUESTION # 723
A 60-year-old male client was hospitalized 3 days ago with the diagnosis of acute anterior wall myocardial infarction. Today he has been complaining of increasing weakness and shortness of breath. Crackles in both lung bases are audible on auscultation. He is developing:
- A. Pulmonary emboli
- B. Pneumonia
- C. An extension of his myocardial infarction
- D. Pulmonary edema
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) Extensions of his myocardial infarction would be chest pain unrelieved with nitroglycerin, cardiac enzyme elevations, and electrocardiographic changes. (B) Persons with pneumonia may complain of weakness and shortness of breath and have crackles in their lung bases. However, they would also have sputum production and leukocytosis. (C) Persons who have had myocardial infarctions (especially anterior wall) are at risk of developing left ventricular heart failure, which is a major cause of pulmonary edema. Pulmonary edema is manifest by shortness of breath, weakness, and crackles on auscultation of the lung fields. (D) Pulmonary emboli may be accompanied by shortness of breath, weakness, and crackles. However, the pulmonary hypertension that accompanies pulmonary emboli results in signs of increased systemic venous pressure as well.
NEW QUESTION # 724
A 9-month-old infant was diagnosed with nonorganic failure to thrive. During her hospitalization, primary nurses were assigned to initiate all infant feedings. The infant's parents question why they cannot feed their own child. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate by the nurse?
- A. The same nurses will prevent parental fatigue and frustration.
- B. The same nurses will prevent infant fatigue and frustration.
- C. By assigning the same nurses to the child, the nurses can begin to learn the infant's cues and feeding behaviors.
- D. Primary nurses will ensure privacy.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Consistent primary care nurses can better interpret infant cues and note feeding behaviors. (B) In nonorganic failure to thrive the parent-infant dyad has already experienced difficulties in the relationship.
These parents may already feel dissatisfied and frustrated. The primary nurse would be unable to prevent this. (C) Assigning a primary nurse does not ensure that infant fatigue and frustration will not occur or can be prevented. (D) Providing privacy does not ensure a change in feeding behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 725
A 16-year-old client comes to the prenatal clinic for her monthly appointment. She has gained 14 lb from her 7th to 8th month; her face and hands indicate edema. She is diagnosed as having PIH and referred to the high-risk prenatal clinic. The client's weight increase is most likely due to:
- A. Hypertension due to kidney lesions
- B. Fluid retention
- C. Overeating and subsequent obesity
- D. Obesity prior to conception
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) Overeating can lead to obesity, but not to edema. (B) There is no indication of obesity prior to pregnancy. PIH is more prevalent in the underweight than in the obese in this age group. (C) Hypertension can be due to kidney lesions, but it would have been apparent earlier in the pregnancy. (D) The weight gain in PIH is due to the retention of sodium ions and fluid and is one of the three cardinal symptoms of PIH.
NEW QUESTION # 726
......
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